DCM (Discontinuous Conduction Mode) and CCM (Continuous Conduction Mode) are two operation modes of power converters, such as DC-DC converters. They refer to the behavior of the inductor current during the switching cycle.
1. DCM (Discontinuous Conduction Mode):
In DCM, the inductor current of the converter drops to zero during a portion of the switching cycle. This occurs when the load demand is low or the duty cycle of the converter is small. In DCM, the inductor current flows discontinuously, with a period of zero current between consecutive switching cycles. The energy transferred to the load is discontinuous, resulting in intermittent current flow.
2. CCM (Continuous Conduction Mode):
In CCM, the inductor current of the converter never drops to zero during the entire switching cycle. This occurs when the load demand is relatively high or the duty cycle of the converter is large. In CCM, the inductor current flows continuously, without any interruption or zero current periods. The energy transferred to the load is continuous, resulting in a continuous current flow.
The choice between DCM and CCM operation modes depends on the desired performance and efficiency of the power converter. Each mode has its advantages and disadvantages. DCM is typically used at light loads to reduce switching losses and improve efficiency. CCM, on the other hand, is preferred at higher loads to achieve better voltage regulation and reduce output voltage ripple.
DCM (Discontinuous Conduction Mode) and CCM (Continuous Conduction Mode) are two operation modes of power converters that describe the behavior of the inductor current during the switching cycle. DCM occurs when the inductor current drops to zero during a portion of the switching cycle, while CCM occurs when the inductor current never drops to zero throughout the switching cycle. The choice of operation mode depends on the load demand and desired performance of the power converter.
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the primary difference between integrated/concurrent engineering development and functional/sequential development is:
Integrated development invests more money upfront to make savings later on. Sequential development covers the stages of development more thoroughly.
An integrated development environment (IDE) is a piece of software that offers computer programmers a full range of tools for creating software. A build automation tools and a source code editor are typically included in an IDE. SharpDevelop is an example of IDEs that lacks the requisite compiler, interpreter, or both. Other IDEs, such as NetBeans and Eclipse, do.
A version control system or numerous tools to make the creation of a graphical user interface (GUI) simpler may be included, blurring the line between an IDE and other components of the larger development environment. For usage in object-oriented software development, a class browser, an object browser, and a class hierarchy diagram are also common features of contemporary IDEs.
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The addictive properties of benzodiazepine drugs have been linked to their effects at the ______________ subunit of GABAA receptors.
A) alpha 1
B) alpha 2
C) alpha 3
D) alpha 4
E) None of these--benzodiazepine drugs are not addictive.
The addictive properties of benzodiazepine drugs have been linked to their effects at the alpha 1 subunit of GABAA receptors. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants and are commonly prescribed for treating anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms.
They exert their therapeutic effects by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmission of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
GABAA receptors are composed of different subunits, including alpha, beta, and gamma. Benzodiazepines bind to a specific site on the GABAA receptor complex, which is distinct from the GABA binding site. This interaction potentiates the effects of GABA, resulting in increased inhibitory neurotransmission.
The alpha 1 subunit of GABAA receptors has been implicated in the addictive properties of benzodiazepines. Studies have shown that benzodiazepines with a higher affinity for the alpha 1 subunit are more likely to produce dependence and addiction. Additionally, research using genetically modified mice has demonstrated that the absence of the alpha 1 subunit reduces the reinforcing effects of benzodiazepines, suggesting a key role for this subunit in addiction.
In summary, the addictive properties of benzodiazepines are associated with their effects at the alpha 1 subunit of GABAA receptors. Understanding the specific receptor subunits involved in addiction can help inform the development of new treatments for substance use disorders.
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Which of the following accurately describes the 5 why's accident investigation technique
According to the information, it can be inferred that the correct option is that the term 5 why's accident investigation technique refers to an interrogative technique to identify the causes and effects related to a problem (option B)
What is the 5 whys technique?5 Whys is a term that refers to an investigative technique used to identify cause and effect relationships related to a specific problem. This investigative technique is generally used in the work environment to identify the origin of an accident at work or production problems and was developed by Sakichi Toyoda.
This technique is mainly based on asking 5 times "Why?" to identify the root of the problem. For example:
The problem: An accident at work that causes an employee to break his armWhy did the employee fall? - Because there was a puddle of oil on the floorWhy was there a puddle of oil on the floor? - Because another employee dropped a bottle full of oilWhy did the other employee drop a bottle of oil? -Because he heard an explosion in the cellar next door and got scared.Why did he hear an explosion in the cellar next door? - Because one of the machines was damaged and exploded.Why did the machine explode? - Because it has not been maintained for more than 4 years.According to the above, it can be inferred that the correct answer is the option that refers to the 5 questions related to the cause and effect of a problem (option B).
Note: This question is incomplete because there is some information missing. Here is the complete information:
A. 5 questions for a job interview
B. 5 questions related to the cause and effect of a problem
C. 5 questions related to diseases in animals
D. 5 questions about injuries in athletes
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are there any companies that you can get a job at as an air craft engeer after university
Explanation:
most big airports. my father has the same degree and works for southwest airlines
Schoolbuses have flashing lights on them as a form of _____ prevention.
A) primary. B) secondary. C) tertiary. D) quaternary.
The correct answer is B) secondary.
School buses have flashing lights on them as a form of secondary prevention.
What is Secondary Prevention?
Secondary prevention is a type of prevention that is aimed at detecting the disease at an early stage so that prompt treatment and intervention may be provided to prevent the progression of the disease.
It is a crucial component of primary health care, and it aims to reduce the severity and duration of the disease.
Primary prevention is a type of prevention that aims to prevent the disease from occurring.
Tertiary prevention is a type of prevention that aims to prevent the recurrence of the disease.
Quaternary prevention is a type of prevention that aims to reduce the harm caused by the intervention, especially in the case of medical errors or interventions that may cause more harm than good.
The primary, tertiary, and quaternary prevention are not applicable in this case because school buses are not related to the medical field.
Therefore, school buses have flashing lights on them as a form of secondary prevention. It is aimed at preventing accidents by alerting other drivers of the presence of the school bus. It helps reduce the number of road accidents involving school buses and provides safety for the students and the driver.
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If 500j of work is required to carry a charge from one point to another through a potential difference of 20v what is the magnitude of the charge
Consider the following incomplete code segment. Consider the following potential replacements for /* missing code */ . Which of these replacements will cause the code segment to always print false ? Assume that Math is imported correctly into our program. (int)(Math.random() * 10) + 20
(int)(Math.random() * 10) + 25
(int)(Math.random() * 10) + 30
(int)(Math.random() + 30)
That Math is imported correctly into our program is (int)(Math. Random() * 10) + 10
What is code segment?An object file or the corresponding area of the virtual address space of the program that includes executable instructions is referred to as a code segment in computing, often known as a text segment or simply as text. Exons are the segments that code, and introns are the portions that do not.This specifies a region of memory where the instruction codes are kept. Another fixed region, this one. Data values are provided to computer functions and procedures via the stack, which is a piece of code.The only distinction I can think of between code and data segment/code segment directives" is that when using code segment, segments must be closed, whereas. code does not.To learn more about code segment refer to:
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A 1500-ft long horizontal and non-fractured well with 6-in. radius is completed in a 55-acre drainage area. The formation net pay is 75 ft thick with the net to gross ratio of 0.9 and has a porosity of 6.5%. The formation permeability values are 2 md and 15 md in vertical and horizontal directions, respectively with the relative permeability to oil of 0.82. The oil has a viscosity of 0.55 cp and the formation volume factor is 1.22 bbl/STB. Earlier test conducted at this well resulted in the calculation of a skin value of 0.8. The correction factor for wellbore friction is 1.0.
Determine the Productivity Index (PI) for this well
The productivity index (PI) for this well is 6.9 STB/day/psi.
The Productivity Index (PI) for this well is approximately 6.9 STB/day/psi.What is Productivity Index (PI)?Productivity index (PI) is a performance metric used to assess the capacity of an oil or gas well to produce hydrocarbons. It is a measure of the well's productivity that relates to the pressure drop across the wellbore's reservoir section and the flow rate of fluids (oil, gas, or water) from the reservoir into the wellbore.When the PI value is high, it means the well is very productive. When the PI is low, it means that the well is not very productive.The formula for the Productivity Index (PI) is as follows:PI = (2πkhd)/(μln(r_e/r_w) + s)Where:k = average permeability, mdh = net reservoir thickness, ftμ = fluid viscosity, cpd = drainage area, acr = wellbore radius, fts = skin factorPI Calculation:Given data,Net pay thickness (h) = 75 ftNet to gross ratio = 0.9Porosity (φ) = 6.5%Average permeability, k = 2 md and 15 md in the vertical and horizontal directions, respectivelyRelative permeability (kro) = 0.82Oil viscosity (μ) = 0.55 cpFormation volume factor (Bo) = 1.22 bbl/STBWellbore radius (rw) = 6 in. or 0.5 ftDrainage area (Ad) = 55 acres = (55 × 43560) ft² = 2395800 ft²Well length (L) = 1500 ftSkin value (s) = 0.8Correction factor for wellbore friction = 1.0The first step is to calculate the effective drainage radius (re) using the formula,re = (0.00708 × (φ^2) × (kh/μ))^(1/2)× (kro/Bo) × ln(r_e/r_w)Let's plug in the values of given parameters,re = (0.00708 × (0.065^2) × ((2+15)/2/μ))^(1/2) × 0.82/1.22 × ln(r_e/r_w)re = (0.04226/μ)^(1/2) × ln(r_e/r_w)We know, k = 2 md and 15 md in vertical and horizontal directions. So we use the harmonic average permeability.1/kh = 1/2 + 1/15kh = 2.14 mdUsing μ = 0.55 cp, the effective drainage radius is calculated as,re = 174.86 ftUsing the formula of PI,PI = (2πkh)/[μln(re/rw) + s]PI = (2 × 3.1416 × 2.14 × 1500)/(0.55 × ln(174.86/0.5) + 0.8)PI = 6.9 STB/day/psi.
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using the two rules of ipv6 compression, edit each ipv6 address until it is in the shortest form possible, then click 'check'. you have 10 addresses to compress.
IPv6 address compression involves applying two rules to reduce the address length as much as possible. Let's go through the process of compressing the given 10 IPv6 addresses:
Rule 1: Leading Zero CompressionAny leading zeros within each segment of the IPv6 address can be omitted.For example, the segment "0000" can be compressed to "::".2. Rule 2: Zero Block Compression
If a consecutive series of segments consists of all zeros, they can be compressed to "::" once in the address.However, only one consecutive series of zeros can be compressed in an address.By applying these compression rules, we can edit each IPv6 address to its shortest form. Please refer to the "Main Answer" section for the compressed versions of the given IPv6 addresses.
Note: The specific process for compressing each address may vary depending on the initial format and the application of the compression rules.
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i gave 15 min to finish this java program
Answer:
class TriangleNumbers
{
public static void main (String[] args)
{
for (int number = 1; number <= 10; ++number) {
int sum = 1;
System.out.print("1");
for (int summed = 2; summed <= number; ++summed) {
sum += summed;
System.out.print(" + " + Integer.toString(summed));
}
System.out.print(" = " + Integer.toString(sum) + '\n');
}
}
}
Explanation:
We need to run the code for each of the 10 lines. Each time we sum numbers from 1 to n. We start with 1, then add numbers from 2 to n (and print the operation). At the end, we always print the equals sign, the sum and a newline character.
A recent online start-up just invested millions of dollars into new technology for their firm. Which of the following goals were they MOST likely trying to achieve?
A
specialization
B
economic growth
C
price stability
D
price stability
Answer:
i think D
Explanation:
what is the total horsepower rating of a series of commercial ceiling fans that draw 30 a at 220 v? (1 hp
Answer:
8.85 hp
Explanation:
1. The first thing we need to do is determine our knowns.
Knowns
Current = I = 30 AmpsVoltage = V = 220 VoltsPower = 1 hp =745.7 Watts = ? (What we're looking for)2. The equation we need to use is one that relates Current, Voltage, and Power to one another.
Power = Current × Voltage
P = IV
3. Plug in all knowns to the equation and solve for Power.
P = 30 A × 220 V = 6600 Watts (or W)
4. Finally, we need to convert Watts to Horsepower.
1 hp = 745.7 W
6600 W × (1 hp / 745.7 W) = 8.85 hp
what does mean setbacks with MRT station?
Dust,dirt, or metal chips can pose a potential what kind of injury risk in a shop
Answer:
Dust, dirt, or metal chips can pose a potential eye injury risk in a shop.
Explanation:
signals and systems
Plot the magnitude and phase characteristics for the following transfer functions. 1 (a) H(jo)= 1- jo (b) H(jo)= -jo 2(1+ jw)²
Signal and System Plotting magnitude and phase characteristics for the transfer function: The magnitude of the transfer function H(jω) is denoted as |H(jω)|, and the phase of the transfer function H(jω) is denoted as ∠H(jω).
For the given transfer functions,1 (a) H(jo)= 1- jo Magnitude, |H(jω)|= √(1 + ω²)Phase, ∠H(jω) = - tan⁻¹ω (note that the slope of the magnitude plot at high frequencies is -20 dB/decade, and the slope of the phase plot at high frequencies is -90°/decade)2(1+ jw)²H(jω) = 2(1 - ω² + j2ω) / (1 + ω²)
Magnitude, |H(jω)| = 2|1 - ω² + j2ω| / |1 + ω²|Phase, ∠H(jω) = tan⁻¹ (2ω / (1 - ω²))The magnitude and phase characteristics of the transfer functions are shown below:1(a) Magnitude and phase plot:2(1 + jω)² Magnitude and phase plot:
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Water is the working fluid in an actual Rankine cycle. Superheated vapor enters the turbine at 8 MPa, 480°C. The condenser pressure is 8 kPa. The net power output of the cycle is 100 MW. The turbine and pump have isentropic efficiencies of 85 and 70%, respectively. Which of the following is the quality of the working fluid at turbine exit assuming isentropic process? At 8 kPa hf = 173.88 kJ/kg hra= 2403.1 kJ/kg hfg At 8 MPa and 480°C h = 3348.4 kJ/kg s = 6.6586 kJ/kg-K V = 1.0084 x 10³ m³/kg Sf = 0.5926 kJ/kg-K Sfg= 7.6361 kJ/kg-K
The answer is that the quality of the working fluid at turbine exit assuming an isentropic process is wet.
To determine the quality of the working fluid at the turbine exit, we can use the given information and apply the Rankine cycle equations.
The enthalpy at the turbine exit can be calculated using the isentropic efficiency of the turbine:
h_out_isentropic = h_in + (h_out_isentropic - h_in) / η_turbine
Given that h_in = 3348.4 kJ/kg (at 8 MPa and 480°C) and η_turbine = 85%, we can rearrange the equation to solve for h_out_isentropic:
h_out_isentropic = h_in + (h_out_isentropic - h_in) / 0.85
Simplifying the equation, we get:
0.15h_out_isentropic = 0.85h_in
h_out_isentropic = 0.85h_in / 0.15
h_out_isentropic ≈ 4.739h_in
Now, we can compare the calculated value of h_out_isentropic with the enthalpy values at the given conditions to determine the quality of the working fluid.
If h_out_isentropic is greater than hra (2403.1 kJ/kg), the working fluid is a mixture of vapor and liquid (i.e., it is wet). If h_out_isentropic is equal to or less than hra, the working fluid is a saturated vapor.
Comparing the values, we find that:
4.739h_in ≈ 4.739 * 3348.4 kJ/kg ≈ 15872.3 kJ/kg
Since 15872.3 kJ/kg is greater than 2403.1 kJ/kg, we can conclude that the working fluid at the turbine exit is wet (a mixture of vapor and liquid).
Therefore, the answer is that the quality of the working fluid at turbine exit assuming an isentropic process is wet.
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Kinetic energy kx is 1/2mvx2. evaluate the mean square kinetic energy < kx2 >in one dimension for n2 molecules at 25°c (hint: in the derivation of < kx2 > use f (vx.) )
The mean kinetic energy of the N₂ molecules at 25 °C is 3593.519 joules per mole.
How to estimate the mean square kinetic energy associated to gas molecules
Let suppose that the gas sample behaves ideally. The Graham's law establishes a connection between the ideal gas model and the kinetic theory of gases.
In this question we need to use this law to estimate the average kinetic energy (Kₐ), in joules per mole, of a diatomic gas (N₂), which is defined by the following expression:
\(K_{a} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot R_{u}\cdot T\) (1)
Where:
\(R_{u}\) - Ideal gas constant, in joules per mole-Kelvin.\(T\) - Temperature, in KelvinIf we know that \(R_{u} = 8.314\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}\) and \(T = 288.15\,K\), then the average kinetic energy is:
\(K_{a} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot \left(8.314\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K} \right) \cdot (288.15\,K)\)
\(K_{a} = 3593.519\,\frac{J}{mol}\)
The mean kinetic energy of the N₂ molecules at 25 °C is 3593.519 joules per mole. \(\blacksquare\)
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What does efficiency measure?
Answer:
Efficiency is defined as any performance that uses the fewest number of inputs to produce the greatest number of outputs. Simply put, you're efficient if you get more out of less.
Explanation:
Is a 10 foot ladder long enough to safely reach a landing that is 9 feet above the adjacent floor
Answer:
Definitely not
Explanation:
You should have 1-2 feet of extra ladder on a flat surface so 1 foot on an adjacent floor is a no no
Technician a says its ok to use a screwdriver at the proper locations to break free a part. technician b says you should use a pry bar at the proper locations to break free a part. who is correct?
In the above scenario, technician A and technician B have different opinions regarding the use of tools to break free a part.
Technician A suggests using a screwdriver while technician B recommends using a pry bar.
So, the question is which one of them is correct?
Both technicians have their own expertise and skills regarding the use of tools to remove a part from a vehicle.
However, using a screwdriver or a pry bar depends on the type and location of the part you want to remove.
For example, if you want to remove a part that is bolted tightly,
a pry bar may not be the best choice because it can damage the part. In such cases,
a screwdriver can be a more appropriate choice to break free the part.
On the other hand, a pry bar can be helpful when you are dealing with parts that have a bit of flexibility or when the part is not bolted down tightly.
Using a pry bar helps to ensure that the part comes off smoothly without any damage.
The bottom line is that both technicians are correct depending on the specific situation.
It's important to assess the location and type of the part before deciding which tool to use.
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Assertion theory is based on the premise that every person has certain baasic right s
Answer: wish I could help
Explanation:
The system is initially moving with the cable taut, the 15-kg block moving down the rough incline with a speed of 0.080 m/s, and the spring stretched 39 mm. By the method of this article, (a) determine the velocity v of the block after it has traveled 99 mm, and (b) calculate the distance d traveled by the block before it comes to rest.
Solution :
The spring is expanded by 2 times of the block when it moves down an inclined by x times.
Here, \($x_1$\) = 39 mm
\(x_2\) = 225 mm
a). From the work energy principal,
Work forces = kinetic energy
\($(mg \sin 50^\circ)\times \frac{99}{1000}-(\mu_k mg \cos 50^\circ) \times \frac{99}{1000} -\frac{1}{2}k(0.225^2 - 0.039^2)=\frac{1}{2}m(V^2_2-0.08^2)$\)
\($(112.6 \times 0.099)-(14.17 \times 0.099)-4.91= 7.5(V^2_2-0.08^2)$\)
\($9.75= 7.5(V^2_2-0.08^2)$\)
\($1.3= V^2_2-0.08^2$\)
\($V_2=1.14\ m/s$\)
b). calculating the distance travelled by the block before it comes to rest.
Substitute the value of \(V_2\) in (1),
\($-(\mu_kmg \cos 50^\circ)x + (mg \sin 50^\circ)x-\frac{1}{2}k\left( ( 2x+0.039)^2 - 0.039^2\right)= -\frac{1}{2}m(0.08)^2$\)
\($-14.17x+112.6x - 100(4x^2+0.156x)=-0.048$\)
\($98.43x - 100(4x^2+0.156x)+0.048=0$\)
\($98.43x - 400x^2-15.6x+0.048=0$\)
\($82.83x - 400x^2+0.048=0$\)
\($ 400x^2- 82.83x-0.048=0$\)
x = 0.20 m
A(n) join returns not only the rows matching the join condition (that is, rows with matching values in the common columns) but also the rows with unmatched values. Select one: a. outer b. cross c. equi- d. inner Assume you are using the UNION ALL operator to combine the results from two tables with identical structure, CUSTOMER and CUSTOMER_2. The CUSTOMER table contains 10 rows, while the CUSTOMER_2 table contains 7 rows. Customers Dunne and Olowski are included in the CUSTOMER table as well as in the CUSTOMER_2 table. How many records are returned when using the UNION ALL operator? Select one: a. 17 b. 2 c. 15 d. 8 "Union-compatible" means that the _____.
Select one: a. number of attributes in the relations must be the same, but the names and data types can be different b. number of attributes in the relations must be the same, the names of the relation attributes must be the same, but the data types can be different c. number of attributes in the relations must be the same, the names of the relation attributes can be different, but the data types must be alike d. names of the relation attributes must be the same and their data types must be alike
INSIDE JOIN
When using this join method, the records that have matching values in both tables are returned. All the tuples with matching values in both tables will be output if you perform an INNER join operation between the Employee table and the Projects table.
If the join condition is true, which join will mix rows from many tables?If the criteria is met, the INNER JOIN keyword selects all rows from both tables. This keyword will combine all rows from both tables where the criterion is met to create the result set.
Which join types are there in the MCQS join condition?SQL supports a total of four join types. types include left outer join, right outer, and inner join.
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ASAP PLease electrical engineering problem
Answer:
see attached
Explanation:
As you know, a full adder produces the binary value in (carry, output) that is the the number of true input bits among the (carry in, A, B) inputs.
The annotated diagram attached shows the bit values for a 4-bit full adder/subtractor.
__
Additional comment
If the numbers are considered "signed", then the top diagram will generate an "overflow" based on the difference between the carry C4 and the output O4.
Con una tasa de interés de 8% por año, ¿a cuánto equivalen $10 000 de hoy, a) dentro de un año, y b) hace un año?
Answer:
que hces en eeuua
Explanation:
As the length of a welding cable increases, the amount of
resistance decreases.
True
False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Resistance occurs when the flow of charge through a wire is hindered. Resistance of flow of charge increases where the cable length increases .In a longer cable the charge carriers and the atoms in the cable collide more resulting to higher resistance.
The correct answer choice is: False.
The first answer is incorrect because resistance to flow of charge in a cable has a direct relation with length of cable in that increase in length of conducting cable will result to increase in resistance to flow of charges through the cable, not decrease in resistance.
If it is an animal then it is an organism convert it in first order logic
Answer:
This is not an engineering question.
Explanation:
A cubic yard of concrete contains how many cubic feet
Most concrete purchases will be made in cubic yards, which equates to 27 cubic feet.At a depth of 3 inches, a cubic yard of material can be spread over a 10×10 area (100 square feet).
1 cubic yard is 46,656 cubic inches (36 inch x 36 inch x 36 inch)
36 inches or three feet make up one yard.
3 feet are equal to 1 yard.
As an illustration, consider a volume of 9-inch-thick, 12-foot-long, 12-foot-wide concrete:
The conversion from inches to feet is 9 inches by 12 inches, or 0.75 feet.
The amount of cubic feet can be calculated by multiplying the length, width, and thickness together: 0.75' x 12' x 12 = 108 cubic feet
We can now divide the concrete's volume, 108 cubic feet, by 27 because we know that 1 cubic yard equals 27 cubic feet.
Concrete equals 108/27 or 4 cubic yards.
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How many cubic feet in a cubic yard of concrete?
In a semi-conductor factory, an engineer is required to analyse the functionality of electric circuit boards. The circuit consists of a switch, an electromotive force E (usually supplied by a battery or generator), a resistor R, an inductor L, and a capacitor C. If the charge (Q) on the capacitor at time t is Q(t), then the current (I) is the rate of change of charge with respect to t, i.e., I(t)= dt/dQ. The electric circuits can be represented as second-order linear differential equation with constant coefficients as follow : L d^2Q/dt^2 + R dq/dt + 1/c Q = E(t). A series circuit is given to the engineer to do the analysis. Given that the circuit contains a resistor with R=24Ohm(Ω), an inductor with L=2Henry(H), and a capacitor with C= 0.005 Farad (F). The engineer needs to determine a) the charge at time t,Q(t) when the switch if off and without battery supply. b) the charge at time t,Q(t) when the switch if on and with a 12-Volt battery supply i. using the method of Undetermined Coefficients; and ii. using the method of Variation of Parameters. c) the current at time t,I(t) based on the charge with battery supply in question (b) above. d) the current at time t,I(t) if given that when the electric circuit has initial charge with Q=0.001 Coulomb (C) and the initial current with I=0 Ampere (A). (5 marks
Answer:
a) When the switch is off and there's no battery supply, the electric potential difference, or electromotive force E(t), is zero. That means the right-hand side of the given differential equation is zero. Therefore, the solution to the homogeneous differential equation represents the charge on the capacitor:
L d²Q/dt² + R dQ/dt + 1/C Q = 0
In this case, since there's no initial charge or current supplied, Q(t) = 0 for all t.
b) When the switch is turned on and a 12-Volt battery is connected:
i. The method of Undetermined Coefficients:
We can solve this by proposing a particular solution that has the same form as the non-homogeneous term, E(t). As E(t) = 12 volts is a constant, we propose Q(t) = A as a constant.
After substituting Q(t) = A into the equation, we would be able to find the value of A, which would give us the particular solution. The general solution would then be the sum of this particular solution and the solution to the homogeneous equation (obtained from part (a)).
ii. The method of Variation of Parameters:
In this method, we would make use of the solutions of the homogeneous differential equation. After finding these, we would propose a solution for the non-homogeneous differential equation in terms of these solutions, and a pair of functions (u and v) to be determined. We then substitute this proposal into the differential equation to obtain a set of two new first-order differential equations for u and v.
c) Once we've found the charge Q(t) in part (b), we can find the current I(t) by differentiating Q(t), as I(t) = dQ/dt.
d) With the given initial conditions (Q = 0.001 C, I = 0 A), we can substitute these into the general solution and its derivative obtained in part (b). We would then solve the resulting system of two equations to find the constants involved, allowing us to determine the specific solution for these initial conditions.
Explanation:
Complex question. Answer depends on data provided and format of equations provided.
What is the eye an example of?
sense organ
stimulus
a relay neuron
sens organ is the eye example