The equivalent circuit parameters referred to the low voltage of a 14 kVA, 250/2500 V, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer is given below Rc = 5000 Χμ = 250 Ω Re1 = 0.20 Xe1=070 51 Draw the fully labelled equivalent circuit, referred to the low voltage side with values (4) Calculate 52 The voltage regulation and secondary terminal voltage on full load, at a power factor of 0 8 lagging. (Ignoring the shunt circuit) (8) 53 Primary current and power factor if rated current is delivered to a load (on the high voltage side) at a power factor of 0.8 lagging Ignore volt drops in your reckoning (5) 54 The efficiency at half full load and the above power factor

Answers

Answer 1

1.The resulting magnitude of the line current is approximately 43.96 A.

2. The resulting phase current is approximately 16648.52 A.

3. The resistance component of each phase is 100√3 ohms.

1. Given Delta load impedance per phase: Z = 3 + 4j ohms

Line-to-line voltage: V = 220 V

The line current (I) can be calculated as follows:

I = V / Z

In a balanced delta load, the line current is the same as the phase current.

I = 220 V / (3 + 4j) ohms

I = 220 V × (3 - 4j) / ((3 + 4j) × (3 - 4j))

Multiplying out the denominator:

I = 220 V × (3 - 4j) / (9 - 12j + 12j - 16j²)

I = 220 V × (3 - 4j) / (9 + 16)

I = 26.4 - 35.2j A

The resulting magnitude of the line current is the magnitude of the complex number I:

|I| = √(26.4² + (-35.2)²)

|I| = 43.96 A

2. To find the resulting phase current in a wye-connected three-phase load, you can use the formula for power factor in terms of real power and apparent power.

Given:

Total apparent power: S = 15 kVA

Power factor: pf = 0.9 lagging

Line-to-line voltage: V = 500 V

The formula for power factor is:

pf = P / |S|

Rearranging the formula:

P = pf × |S|

The real power consumed by the load can be calculated as:

P = 0.9 × 15 kVA

P = 13.5 kW

In a balanced wye-connected load, the line current (I) is related to the phase current (I_phi) and the square root of 3 (√3) as follows:

I = √3 × I_phi

Therefore, the phase current can be calculated as:

I_phi = I / √3

The line current (I) can be calculated using Ohm's law:

I = V / |Z|

The impedance (Z) can be determined using the formula for apparent power:

|Z| = |V / I|

Substituting the known values:

|Z| = 500 V / (15 kVA / √3)

|Z| = 500 V / (15000 VA / √3)

|Z| = 500 V / (15000 × 1000 VA / √3)

|Z| = 0.01732 ohms

Now we can calculate the line current:

I = 500 V / 0.01732 ohms

I = 28847.99 A

Finally, we can determine the phase current:

I_phi = I / √3

I_phi = 28847.99 A / √3

I_phi = 16648.52 A

3. To determine the resistance component of each phase in a balanced delta-connected load, you can use the formula for power in AC circuits.

Given:

Line current: I = 20 A

Total three-phase real power: P = 6 kW

The formula for real power (P) is:

P = √3 × I × V× cos(theta)

In a balanced delta-connected load, the line current (I) is equal to the phase current.

Therefore, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the resistance component (R) of each phase:

P = √3 × I² × R

Substituting the known values:

6 kW = √3×  (20 A)² × R

R = (6 kW) / (√3 × 400 A² )

R = 300 / √3 ohms

R=100√3 ohms

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Related Questions

When driving a commercial motor vehicle safely, it is recommended that you leave at
least one second between your vehicle and the vehicle you are following for each
feet of your vehicle's length.

Answers

Answer:

If you are driving below 40 mph, you should leave at least one second for every 10 feet of vehicle length.

15. Concerning blood, which virus poses the greatest risk for workers?
A) O HIV
B) O Hepatitis C
C) O Hepatitis A
D) O Hepatitis B

Answers

Answer:

I think the answer is A. HIV

In low speed subsonic wind tunnels, the value of test section velocity can be controlled by adjusting the pressure difference between the inlet and test-section for a fixed ratio of inlet-to-test section cross-sectional area.
a. True
b. false

Answers

Answer:

Hence the given statement is false.

Explanation:

For low-speed subsonic wind tunnels, the air density remains nearly constant decreasing the cross-section area cause the flow to extend velocity, and reduce pressure. Similarly increasing the world cause to decrease and therefore the pressure to extend.

The speed within the test section is decided by the planning of the tunnel.  

Thus by adjusting the pressure difference won't change the worth of test section velocity.

Answer:

The given statement is false .

Reflection 3: What are some of the pros and cons to each of the three methods you have used?



Reflection 3: What are some of the pros and cons to each of the three methods you have used?

Answers

There are different methods to calculate the balance in excel, but here are the pros and cons for three of the most common methods:

SUM formula:

Pros: Simple to use and easy to understand. Can be applied to a range of cells in a single formula.

Cons: Not flexible, as the formula must be modified if the size of the range changes.

Pivot Tables:

Pros: Can be used to summarize data from multiple sources and provides an interactive interface to manipulate the data.

Cons: Can be complex to set up and requires a good understanding of pivot tables.

VLOOKUP:

Pros: Can be used to find specific values in a large data set and return the corresponding value from a different column.

Cons: Can be slow for large data sets and can be prone to errors if not used correctly. Can also be complicated for users who are not familiar with the function.

What is VLOOKUP?

A lookup table is an array in computer science that substitutes runtime computation with a simpler array indexing operation.

The VLOOKUP function is defined as follows: =VLOOKUP(What you want to look up, where you want to look for it, the column number in the range holding the value to return, return an Approximate or Exact match - denoted as 1/TRUE, or 0/FALSE).

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1.) To ensure that hostile traffic from unknown networks does not make its way onto a system, _____ can be used.
A)antivirus programs
B)remote virtualization
C)firewalls
D)protocol analyzers
2.) The ability to access and work on data without the need to remove those data from the secured corporate environment is the primary benefit of
A) virtualization.
B) flash drives.
C) instant messages.
D) security policies.
3.) Desktop virtualization is also known as _____, and it allows a user to connect to the organization's data network and work on a virtual version of his or her computer.
A.) thick client
B.) thin client
C.) mobile client
D.) access client
4.) A commonly used deterrent control is the creation of a strong education and _____ program used to inform employees of the issues and acceptable practices surrounding the use of mobile technologies in the organization.
A.) awareness
B.) enforcement
C.) IT department
D.) defensive

Answers

To ensure that hostile traffic from unknown networks does not make its way onto a system, defensive measures can be used. These measures include firewalls, intrusion detection and prevention systems, and network access control.

Option D is correct

Firewalls are used to block unauthorized traffic from entering a network, while intrusion detection and prevention systems monitor network traffic for signs of malicious activity and block it before it can reach its destination. Network access control ensures that only authorized devices are allowed to connect to the network.Desktop virtualization is also known as virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI), and it allows a user to connect to the organization's data network and work on a virtual version of his or her computer. This virtual desktop can be accessed from any device that is connected to the network, which allows for greater flexibility and mobility. Desktop virtualization also provides increased security, as the virtual desktop can be centrally managed and secured, and data is not stored on individual devices A commonly used deterrent control is the creation of a strong education and awareness program used to inform employees of the issues and acceptable practices surrounding the use of mobile technologies in the organization. This program should include training on how to identify and avoid potential threats, such as phishing scams and malware, as well as best practices for using mobile devices securely. Additionally, the program should emphasize the importance of reporting any security incidents or suspicious activity to the appropriate personnel. By educating employees on these topics, organizations can reduce the risk of security breaches caused by human error or negligence.

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C) firewalls can be used to prevent hostile traffic from unknown networks from reaching a system by filtering and blocking incoming traffic based on certain criteria such as IP address, port number, or protocol type.

A) virtualization allows access and work on data without the need to remove those data from the secured corporate environment, as it creates a virtual version of the computer system or network that can be accessed remotely.

B) thin client is another name for desktop virtualization, which allows a user to access and work on a virtual version of their computer over a network connection.

A) awareness programs are commonly used to educate and inform employees about the issues and acceptable practices surrounding the use of mobile technologies in an organization. This helps to deter potential security breaches or mistakes caused by ignorance or carelessness.

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Tech a says that the difference between the stored pulse width and the actual pulse width required to keep the mixture at the correct ratio is called fuel trim. Tech b says that long-term fuel trim values can be positive or negative. Who is correct?.

Answers

Tech B says that the long-term trim values can be positive or negative, which is correct, while Tech A is wrong.

What Is Negative Long-Term Fuel Trim?

Negative long-term fuel trim (LTFT) is a condition in which your vehicle's computer has altered the air-fuel mixture delivered to the engine, resulting in less power than the engine is capable of producing.

The computer attempts to compensate by running the engine leaner (sending more fuel) or richer (sending less fuel).

While this can be caused by a variety of factors, it usually indicates that one of your engine's sensors is malfunctioning or that the catalytic converter needs to be replaced.

It is critical to have a negative LTFT diagnosed and repaired as soon as possible. It can cause serious engine damage if left unchecked.

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Consider an area-source box model for air pollution above a peninsula of land. The length of the box is 15 km, its width is 80 km, and a radiation inversion restricts mixing to 15 m. Wind is blowing clean air into the long dimension of the box at 0.5 m/s. On average, there are 250,000 vehicles on the road, each being driven 40 km in 2 hours and each emitting 4 g/km of CO.

Required:
a. Estimate the steady-state concentration of CO in the air. Should the city be designated as "nonattainment" (i.e., steady-state concentration is over the NAAQS standard)?
b. Find the average rate of CO emissions during this two-hour period.
c. If the windspeed is zero, use the formula to derive relationship between CO and time and use it to find the CO over the peninsula at 6pm

Answers

Consider an area-source box model for air pollution above a peninsula of land. The length of the box is 15 km, its width is 80 km, and a radiation inversion restricts mixing to 15 m. Wind is blowing clean air into the long dimension of the box at 0.5 m/s. On average, there are 250,000 vehicles on the road, each being driven 40 km in 2 hours and each emitting 4 g/km of CO.

Required:

a. Estimate the steady-state concentration of CO in the air. Should the city be designated as "nonattainment" (i.e., steady-state concentration is over the NAAQS standard)?

b. Find the average rate of CO emissions during this two-hour period.

c. If the windspeed is zero, use the formula to derive relationship between CO and time and use it to find the CO over the peninsula at 6pmConsider an area-source box model for air pollution above a peninsula of land. The length of the box is 15 km, its width is 80 km, and a radiation inversion restricts mixing to 15 m. Wind is blowing clean air into the long dimension of the box at 0.5 m/s. On average, there are 250,000 vehicles on the road, each being driven 40 km in 2 hours and each emitting 4 g/km of CO.

Required:

a. Estimate the steady-state concentration of CO in the air. Should the city be designated as "nonattainment" (i.e., steady-state concentration is over the NAAQS standard)?

b. Find the average rate of CO emissions during this two-hour period.

c. If the windspeed is zero, use the formula to derive relationship between CO and time and use it to find the CO over the peninsula at 6pmConsider an area-source box model for air pollution above a peninsula of land. The length of the box is 15 km, its width is 80 km, and a radiation inversion restricts mixing to 15 m. Wind is blowing clean air into the long dimension of the box at 0.5 m/s. On average, there are 250,000 vehicles on the road, each being driven 40 km in 2 hours and each emitting 4 g/km of CO.

Required:

a. Estimate the steady-state concentration of CO in the air. Should the city be designated as "nonattainment" (i.e., steady-state concentration is over the NAAQS standard)?

b. Find the average rate of CO emissions during this two-hour period.

c. If the windspeed is zero, use the formula to derive relationship between CO and time and use it to find the CO over the peninsula at 6pm

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(a) (6 points) Find the integer a in {0, 1,..., 26} such that a = -15 (mod 27). Explain. (b) (6 points) Which positive integers less than 12 are relatively prime to 12?

Answers

a. a = 12 is the solution to the given congruence relation. b. the positive integers less than 12 that are relatively prime to 12 are 1, 5, 7, and 11.

(a) The main answer: The integer a that satisfies a ≡ -15 (mod 27) is 12.

To find the value of a, we need to consider the congruence relation a ≡ -15 (mod 27). This means that a and -15 have the same remainder when divided by 27.

To determine the value of a, we can add multiples of 27 to -15 until we find a number that falls within the range of {0, 1,..., 26}. By adding 27 to -15, we get 12. Therefore, a = 12 is the solution to the given congruence relation.

(b) The main answer: The positive integers less than 12 that are relatively prime to 12 are 1, 5, 7, and 11.

Supporting explanation: Two integers are relatively prime if their greatest common divisor (GCD) is 1. In this case, we are looking for positive integers that have no common factors with 12 other than 1.

To determine which numbers satisfy this condition, we can examine each positive integer less than 12 and calculate its GCD with 12.

For 1, the GCD(1, 12) = 1, which means it is relatively prime to 12.

For 2, the GCD(2, 12) = 2, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 3, the GCD(3, 12) = 3, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 4, the GCD(4, 12) = 4, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 5, the GCD(5, 12) = 1, which means it is relatively prime to 12.

For 6, the GCD(6, 12) = 6, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 7, the GCD(7, 12) = 1, which means it is relatively prime to 12.

For 8, the GCD(8, 12) = 4, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 9, the GCD(9, 12) = 3, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 10, the GCD(10, 12) = 2, so it is not relatively prime to 12.

For 11, the GCD(11, 12) = 1, which means it is relatively prime to 12.

Therefore, the positive integers less than 12 that are relatively prime to 12 are 1, 5, 7, and 11.

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Find and write the mathematical problem formulation of shortest path problem

Answers

In graph theory, the shortest path problem is the problem of finding a path between two vertices (or nodes) in a graph such that the sum of the weights of its constituent edges is minimized.


Shortest path (A, C, E, D, F) between vertices A and F in the weighted directed graph
The problem of finding the shortest path between two intersections on a road map may be modeled as a special case of the shortest path problem in graphs, where the vertices correspond to intersections and the edges correspond to road segments, each weighted by the length of the segment.

A 75-kg piano is hosted on a crane and delivered throughout the window of a 6th story apartment (20 meters above ground). What is the potential energy of the piano?

Answers

Answer:

  14,700 J

Explanation:

PE = Mgh = (75 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(20 m) = 14,700 J

What can be used as a tracing powder when checking for small oil leaks

Answers

Answer:

Talcum powder!

Explanation:

How to find the source of an oil leak:

This method simply involves using Talcum Powder as a visual aid to help pinpoint the location of an oil leak,

so you use Talcum powder for small oil leak :]

Have a wonderful day!

What lives at layer 3 (the network layer) of the OSI model?

Answers

Layer 3 of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model, known as the network layer, is responsible for providing end-to-end communication between hosts in different networks.

The network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks, as well as handling addressing and logical connectivity.

The main entities that live at layer 3 (the network layer) of the OSI model include:

Routers: Routers are network devices that operate at the network layer and are responsible for forwarding data packets between different networks. They use routing tables and protocols to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination across multiple networks.

IP (Internet Protocol): IP is a network layer protocol that provides logical addressing and routing functionality. It is responsible for assigning unique IP addresses to devices on a network, and for routing data packets based on those IP addresses.

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol): ICMP is a network layer protocol that is used for sending error messages and operational information about network conditions. It is often used for diagnostic purposes, such as ping and traceroute, to check the connectivity and status of network devices.

Network Addressing: Layer 3 is also responsible for assigning and managing IP addresses, which are used to uniquely identify devices on a network.

Subnetting and VLANs: Layer 3 may also involve subnetting and VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks), which are used for network segmentation and management to improve efficiency and security.

In summary, layer 3 of the OSI model includes routers, IP, ICMP, network addressing, and other protocols and technologies that are responsible for routing, addressing, and logical connectivity in a network.

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A group of 10 friends are planning to a trip. You are responsible for
the flight tickets. You searched on the Internet and you found a flight with
four different classes. Economy class (100$) has only 3 available seats, First
class (150$) has only 1 available seat, Business class (200$) has only 2
available seats, and Premium class (300$) has 5 available seats. Your budget
is limited and you want to save as much as you can. In how many ways you
can book the tickets?

Answers

The number of ways you can book the tickets are; 4 seats economic, 2 seats first class, 3 seats business class, 1 seat premium class

What is the least number of combinations?

We want to find the way to spend the least money if everyone is seated on one seat. From the given parameters, we can say that the way to spend the least money is as follows;

4 times of economy class = 4 * $100 = 400$ +

2 times of first class = 2 * $150 = 300$ +

3 times of business class = 3 * $200 = 600$ +

1 time of premium class = 1 * $300 = 300$

Total = $400 + $300 + $600 + $300

Total = 1600$

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one of the primary purposes of technical performance measures is to

Answers

One of the primary purposes of technical performance measures is to identify issues, report the findings, and adjust project plans to ensure that technical efficiency is maintained.

Technical performance measures assist in the assessment of the project's technical competence. This evaluation is performed to assess the project's compliance with the technological criteria established by the developers.Technical performance measurement can be used to assess product and project quality, timeliness, and efficiency. These measurements can also be used to track technology development activities, test results, and verification activities as part of an integrated technology development program.



In general, technical performance measures aid in the detection of problems and shortcomings in technical performance. Technical performance measurement can also assist in the allocation of resources, the identification of bottlenecks, and the optimization of resource usage. Technical performance measurements are critical to the successful completion of complex and intricate technical projects, which are typical in today's technology-driven society.

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Wastewater flows into a _________ once it is released into a floor drain.
A) HoseB) Covered containerC) Sump pitD) Bucket

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

Wastewater flows into a sump pit once it is released into a floor drain.

For better understanding, lets understand what wastewater means

Wastewater are water that are not needed or have been use and therefore they are disposed. Waster water often contains waste product of man such as food waste,feaces etc.Sump is simply known as a basin into which groundwater is channeled to. A sump pit is commonly known as a temporary pit that is fixed to trap and filter water for carrying or pumping into a design discharge area.

From the above, we can therefore say that the answer that Wastewater flows into a sump pit once it is released into a floor drain is correct

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A four-cylinder four-stroke engine is modelled using the air standard Otto cycle (two engine revolutions per cycle). Given the conditions at state 1, total volume (V1) of each cylinder, compression ratio (r), rate of heat addition (Q), and engine speed in RPM, determine the efficiency and other values listed below. The gas constant for air is R =0.287 kJ/kg-K.

T1 = 300 K
P1 = 100 kPa
V1 = 500 cm^3
r = 10
Q = 60 kW
Speed = 5600 RPM

Required:
a. Determine the total mass (kg) of air in the engine.
b. Determine the specific internal energy (kJ/kg) at state 1.
c. Determine the specific volume (m^3/kg) at state 1.
d. Determine the relative specific volume at state 1.

Answers

Answer:

a) Mt = 0.0023229

b) = U1 = 214.07

c) = V₁  = 0.861 m³/kg

d) = Vr1 = 621.2

Explanation:

Given that

R = 0.287 KJ/kg.K, T1 = 300 K , P1 = 100 kPa , V1 = 500 cm³, r = 10 , Q = 60 kW , Speed N = 5600 RPM, Number of cylinders K = 4

specific heat at constant volume Cv = 0.7174 kJ/kg.K

Specific heat at constant pressure is 1.0045 Kj/kg.K

a)  To determine the total mass (kg) of air in the engine.

we say

P1V1 = mRT1

we the figures substitute

(100 x 10³) ( 500 x  10⁻⁶) = m ( 0.287 x  10³) ( 300 )

50 = m x 86100

m = 0.00005 / 86100 = 0.0005807 ( mass of one cylinder)

Total mass of 4 cylinder

Mt = m x k

Mt = 0.0005807 x 4

Mt = 0.0023229

b) To determine the specific internal energy (kJ/kg) at state 1

i.e at T1 = 300

we obtain the value of specific internal energy U1 at 300 K ( state 1) from the table ideal gas properties of air.

U1 = 214.07

c) To determine the specific volume (m³/kg) at state 1.

we say

V₁ = V1/m

V₁ = (500 x  10⁻⁶) / 0.0005807

V₁  = 0.861 m³/kg

d) To determine the relative specific volume at state 1.

To obtain the value of relative specific volume at 300 K ( i.e state 1) from the table ideal gas properties of air.

At T1 = 300 k

Vr1 = 621.2

A pointer is spun on a fair wheel of chance having its periphery labeled Trom 0 to 100. (a) Whhat is the sample space for this experiment? (b)What is the probability that the pointer will stop between 20 and 35? (c) What is the probability that the wheel will stop on 58?

Answers

Answer:

A pointer is spun on a fair wheel of chance having its periphery labeled Trom 0 to 100. (a) Whhat is the sample space for this experiment? (b)What is the probability that the pointer will stop between 20 and 35? (c) What is the probability that the wheel will stop on 58?

Explanation:

thats all you said

Answer:

hii my name is RAGHAV what is your name

Explanation:

this question is which chapter

which option identifies the type of engineer described in the following scenario? sean is an engineer whose current project is a skyscraper in richmond, va. he relies heavily on geometry in his research of building design.

Answers

The option that identifies the type of engineer described in the following scenario is a structural stability. So, option B is accurate.

What is a skyscraper?

A skyscraper is a tall building that has multiple floors, and it is often found in a city. In the early days, tall buildings were constructed with steel frames and are now typically made of reinforced concrete or steel. The main aim of a skyscraper is to give a lot of usable space on a small amount of land.

The building design described in the scenario is likely a "skyscraper" or a tall building in Richmond, VA. The engineer, Sean, relies heavily on geometry in his research of building design, which suggests that the design of the building involves complex geometric calculations and considerations. Skyscrapers are typically characterized by their height and often require advanced engineering techniques and calculations, including geometry, to ensure structural stability and safety.

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The actual question is:

Which option identifies the building design described in the following scenario?

Sean is an engineer whose current project is a skyscraper in Richmond, VA. He he relies heavily on geometry in his research of building design.

A) improper balance

B) structural stability

C) Symmetry

D) intricate patterns

A rectangular brick-lined channel (n = 0.016) of 4.0-m width is laid on a bottom slope of 0.0009. It carries a discharge of 15 m3 /s and the fl ow is non-uniform. If the depth at a Section A is 2.6 m, calculate the depth at section B, 500 m downstream of A, by using (a) only one step, and (b) two steps.

Answers

Answer:

To calculate the depth at section B, 500 m downstream of section A, we can use the Chezy formula:

V = C*R^(1/2)

Where V is the velocity, C is the Chezy coefficient, and R is the hydraulic radius.

a) Using only one step:

Since the flow is non-uniform, the velocity at section B can be assumed to be the same as at section A. Therefore, the depth at section B can be calculated using the same Chezy coefficient and hydraulic radius as at section A.

Hydraulic Radius (R) = A/P = (width * depth) / 2

R_A = (4 * 2.6) / 2 = 5.2 m

R_B = R_A = 5.2 m

Chezy coefficient (C) = (V^2 * n) / (2 * g * R^(1/2))

C = (15^2 * 0.016) / (2 * 9.81 * 5.2^(1/2)) = 1.94

Now we can use the Chezy formula to calculate the depth at section B

V = C*R^(1/2)

V = 1.94 * 5.2^(1/2) = 3.23 m/s

b) Using two steps:

First, we can calculate the velocity at section B using the continuity equation:

Q = A1 * V1 = A2 * V2

15 = (4 * 2.6 * 3.23) = (4 * y * V2)

V2 = (15 / 4) / y = 3.75/y m/s

Next, we can use the Chezy formula and the velocity at section B to calculate the depth at section B:

V = C*R^(1/2)

y = V^2 * n / (C^2 * g)

y = (3.75/y)^2 * 0.016 / (1.94^2 * 9.81)

y = 2.34 m

So, the depth at section B is 2.34 m by using two steps.

Note: The above calculations are based on the assumption that the slope is uniform along the channel and the flow is steady. In practice, other factors such as channel roughness and boundary conditions may also have an impact on the depth of flow.

Technician A states that air tools generally produce more noise than electric tools, so wear ear protection when using air tools. Technician B states that you should always use impact sockets with impact guns. Who is correct?

Answers

Answer:

Both Technician A and Technician B are correct

Explanation:

Air tools and electric tools are both power tools as they are used to make work easier. Air tools generally use an air compressor that powers the motor of the tool making it possible to use it while electric tools as the name implies are powered by an electric source which in this case is batteries. An example of an air tool is the nail gun which can be used by furniture makers to drive nails and they are often louder than electric tools because of vibrations caused by the compressor making it necessary to use ear protection when using the tool for ear safety.

Technician B  is also correct because it is always advisable to use impact sockets while using impact guns due to the ability of the impact sockets to withstand the force caused by operating impact guns and make work neater when nuts and bolts are being loosened or tightened.

What do you think are 5 of the most important technological inventions in human history? Why?​

Answers


1. The Printing Press: Invented by Johannes Gutenberg in the 15th century, the printing press revolutionized the way information was disseminated, making knowledge accessible to a wider audience and facilitating the spread of ideas.

2. The Steam Engine: Developed in the 18th century, the steam engine powered the Industrial Revolution and transformed the way goods were produced, leading to significant changes in the economy and society.

3. The Telephone: Invented by Alexander Graham Bell in the 19th century, the telephone revolutionized communication, allowing people to communicate with each other over long distances in real-time.

4. The Internet: Developed in the 20th century, the internet transformed the way people access and share information, leading to significant changes in communication, commerce, and social interaction.

5. The Smartphone: Invented in the 21st century, the smartphone has become an essential tool for communication, entertainment, and productivity, allowing people to access a wide range of services and information from anywhere at any time.

These inventions have had a profound impact on human history, transforming the way people live, work, and interact with each other.

what are the besl measures used for data variation or dispersion

Answers

Answer:

STANDARD DAVIATION OR SD

Explanation:

BECAUSE it is commonly in measuring of dispersion and it also the most roubst measure of variability

in a text area, the default value of the wrap attribute is ____.

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The default value of the wrap attribute in a text area is "soft." In a text area, the wrap attribute specifies how the text should be wrapped when it reaches the edge of the input box. There are two possible values for the wrap attribute: "soft" and "hard."

The "soft" value, which is the default, ensures that text is visually wrapped within the text area without adding any newline characters in the submitted data. This means that while the text appears wrapped in the input box, it will be submitted as a single continuous line when the form is submitted.

On the other hand, the "hard" value causes the text to be wrapped with newline characters when it reaches the edge of the input box. This ensures that the line breaks are preserved in the submitted data, making the text appear the same way as it does in the input box when displayed in the output.

In summary, the wrap attribute in a text area determines how the text is wrapped and its default value is "soft," which wraps the text visually without affecting the submitted data.

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With direct fuel injection the gasoline is injected:

Answers

Answer:

Gasoline is injected directly into the cylinder.

Explanation:

In a direct injection system, the air and gasoline are not pre-mixed. Rather, air comes in using the intake manifold, while the gasoline is injected directly into the cylinder.

two delta-connected loads are connected in parallel and powered by a balanced yconnected system. the smaller of the two loads draws 10 kva at a lagging pf of 0.75, and the larger draws 25 kva at a leading pf of 0.8. the line voltage is 400 v. calculate (a) the power factor at which the source is operating; (b) the total power drawn by the two loads; (c) the phase current of each load.

Answers

The power factor at which the source is operating is approximately 0.79. The total power drawn by the two loads is 27.5 kW. The phase current of Load 1 is approximately 25 A, and the phase current of Load 2 is approximately 62.5 A.

(a) Calculating the power factor at which the source is operating:

To find the power factor at which the source is operating, we need to calculate the apparent power (S) drawn by the loads.

Apparent power is given by the formula:

S = V * I, where V is the line voltage and I is the current.

The apparent power for each load can be calculated using the formula:

S = P / pf, where P is the real power.

For Load 1:

P1 = 10 kVA * 0.75 = 7.5 kW (since power factor is given in lagging, we use the same power value)

S1 = P1 / pf1 = 7.5 kW / 0.75 = 10 kVA

For Load 2:

P2 = 25 kVA * 0.8 = 20 kW (since power factor is given in leading, we use the same power value)

S2 = P2 / pf2 = 20 kW / 0.8 = 25 kVA

The total apparent power drawn by the loads is:

Stotal = S1 + S2 = 10 kVA + 25 kVA = 35 kVA

The power factor (pf) of the source can be calculated as:

pf = Ptotal / Stotal, where Ptotal is the total real power drawn.

Since Ptotal = P1 + P2 = 7.5 kW + 20 kW = 27.5 kW,

pf = 27.5 kW / 35 kVA ≈ 0.7857 (or approximately 0.79)

Thus, the answer is approximately 0.79.

(b) Calculating the total power drawn by the two loads:

The total real power drawn by the loads (Ptotal) is the sum of the individual real powers:

Ptotal = P1 + P2 = 7.5 kW + 20 kW = 27.5 kW

Thus, the answer is 27.5 kW.

(c) Calculating the phase current of each load:

To calculate the phase current (I) of each load, we can use the formula:

I = S / V, where S is the apparent power and V is the line voltage.

For Load 1:

I1 = S1 / V = 10 kVA / 400 V ≈ 25 A

For Load 2:

I2 = S2 / V = 25 kVA / 400 V ≈ 62.5 A

The phase current of Load 1 is approximately 25 A, and the phase current of Load 2 is approximately 62.5 A.

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what executable programs in /usr/bin have names that are exactly two characters long and end in r, and what do they do?

Answers

A crontab file is a simple text file that provides a list of instructions that are meant to be run at specific times.

In Linux, FHS describes the contents of directories and how Operating System files are presented to users. The directory /bin houses executable software. The abbreviation for system binaries is s/bin. System binaries need root privileges to carry out particular operations. Binaries that are essential for both booting the system and recovering and restoring it can be found in /the bin. The system boot commands are likewise found in the /bin directory, but the primary distinction between the two is that /sbin applications can only be run by the root user. Examples include ifconfig, fdisk, fsck, root, halt, init, and grub. Simple text instructions are contained in the crontab file, which instructs the cron daemon what to do at predetermined intervals or periods.

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Which of the following statement about pump performance curves is incorrect?
Group of answer choices
a/ Break horse power (BHP) curve indicates the energy (or power) that a pump consumes at different discharges.
b/ Net positive suction head (NPSH) curve indicates the minimum NPSH values at different discharges in order to avoid cavitation.
c/ Best efficiency point (BEP) is the maximum efficiency that a pump may achieve within its operating discharge range.
d/ Pump head curve indicates how much energy (or power) that a pump can provide to the flow at different discharges.

Answers

The incorrect statement is: BEP is the highest efficiency point a pump can achieve within its operating range (instead of the maximum efficiency itself). Therefore, option c is correct.

Efficiency refers to the ratio of output power to input power, indicating how effectively a pump converts input energy into useful work. In the context of pump performance curves, the Best Efficiency Point (BEP) represents the flow rate at which the pump operates with the highest efficiency.

Achieving high efficiency is desirable as it signifies optimal use of energy and minimizes wasted power. The BEP is a crucial operating point to consider when selecting and designing pumps, as operating away from this point can result in reduced efficiency, higher energy consumption, and potential performance issues.

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T/F. Once you have chosen a layout, you cannot change it on a slide and must delete the slide and recreate it

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False. In most presentation software, including popular tools like Microsoft PowerPoint, you can change the layout of a slide even after it has been created. You are not required to delete the slide and recreate it to change the layout.

Presentation software provides options to modify the layout of a slide, allowing you to choose from various pre-defined layouts or customize the layout according to your needs. This flexibility enables you to rearrange and adjust the content on a slide without having to start from scratch.

By accessing the slide layout options or using drag-and-drop functionality, you can modify the slide's layout, such as adding or removing placeholders, changing the placement and size of text boxes or images, adjusting the arrangement of titles and content, and more. These layout modifications help you optimize the visual presentation and organization of information on the slide.

However, it's worth noting that major structural changes, such as switching between different layout templates or completely changing the slide's design, may require more significant modifications and may be easier to achieve by creating a new slide with the desired layout. Nonetheless, it is not a strict rule, and in most cases, you can modify the layout of a slide without deleting and recreating it.

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A type of adjustable square that can be used to set, test, and transfer angles is called a

Answers

Answer:

pocket cut

Explanation:

type of adjustable square that can be used to set test and transfer angles. sliding t bevel.

Do not ________________ a tool. *
-clean up
-force
-stop
-unplug

Answers

Answer:Unplug or force?
Hdsubsjsbxudnsorryyyy
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