Answer:
A policy is a set of general guidelines that outline the organization's plan for tackling an issue. Policies communicate the connection between the organization's vision and values and its day-to-day operations. A procedure explains a specific action plan for carrying out a policy.
Please give me brainliest - you get 25% as well! I swear!
Where should an SDS binder be kept?
Explanation:
Stored in a location that all staff can access during work hours.
Answer:
in a work room
Explanation:
not too far away from where it's needed
Explain what distinguishes acute and chronic sports injuries.
Answer:
that develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques.That develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques.
Explanation:
sorry if it wrong
Answer:
Acute sports injuries are generally those that result from some sort of traumatic event on the body. Since they generally result from trauma, acute injuries tend to have a rapid onset and progression, but this can also mean that they will be of more limited duration. Chronic sports injuries, however, are generally those that develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques. The slow onset and progression of chronic injuries tends to also extend the time needed to recover from them.
Explanation:
Whos someone whos healthy menstlally and physically?
Answer:
the majority of my classmates
Explanation:
the most likely rationale for body temperature fluctuations after cervical spinal cord injury is that the person:
The brain and body communicate through the spinal cord. However, after spinal cord injury, this communication may be disrupted and messages may not be transmitted across the injury. This can impair functions such as sweating.
Extreme back pain or tightness in the neck, head, or back. Weakness, incoordination, or paralysis in any part of the body. Numbness, tingling, or loss of sensation in hands, fingers, feet, or toes. Various authors have defined cessation of spinal shock as the appearance of the bulbocavernosus reflex, restoration of the deep tendon reflex, or restoration of reflex detrusor activity. Although sometimes asymptomatic, signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia commonly include a rapid increase in blood pressure, heart rate changes (reflex bradycardia), anxiety, blurred vision, headache, flushing, and sweating. (above injury level).
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Bone is constantly being broken down by what?
if someone else is nearby when a victim collapses, you should send that person to find an automated external defibrillator (aed).
When someone else is nearby when a victim collapses, then you should send that person to find an automated external defibrillator to revive someone from sudden cardiac arrest.
What is automated external defibrillator?An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a medical device to analyze the heart rhythm and to deliver an electric shock to victims of ventricular fibrillation to restore the heart rhythm back to normal. Ventricular fibrillation is the uncoordinated heart rhythm that is responsible for sudden cardiac arrest.
AED should be used on the person only when the heart suddenly stops beating or if they are experiencing Sudden Cardiac Arrest.
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what is the primary outcome for client care in the third stage of labor?
The primary outcome for client care in the third stage of labor is to ensure the safe delivery of the placenta and to monitor the mother's physical and emotional well-being.
During this stage, healthcare providers focus on minimizing blood loss, preventing complications, and promoting bonding between the mother and newborn.
Active management is often employed to facilitate placental delivery, which includes administering uterotonic medications, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage. These techniques help contract the uterus and reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, healthcare providers monitor vital signs, such as blood pressure and heart rate, to detect any abnormalities.
The emotional well-being of the mother is also crucial during this stage. Encouraging skin-to-skin contact and initiating breastfeeding soon after delivery can promote bonding and facilitate the release of oxytocin, a hormone that helps contract the uterus and reduce bleeding. Providing emotional support and reassurance can help alleviate anxiety and foster a positive birth experience.
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According to Vaughn, any research conducted on human beings needs to adhere to the following three moral principles: autonomy, beneficence, and __
O nonmaleficence O mercy O personhood O justice
The three moral principles that Vaughn identifies as important in any research conducted on human beings are autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence. The correct answer is nonmaleficence.
Autonomy refers to the principle of respecting an individual's right to make their own decisions and choices regarding their participation in research. This includes obtaining informed consent from participants, and ensuring that they have the ability to freely and voluntarily consent to or refuse participation in research.
Beneficence refers to the principle of acting in the best interest of the research participant, by maximizing potential benefits and minimizing potential harms. This includes designing studies that are scientifically valid and likely to produce important results, as well as ensuring that the risks of harm to participants are minimized.
Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of avoiding harm to research participants. This includes minimizing risks of physical, psychological, or social harm, and ensuring that the benefits of research outweigh any potential risks.
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According to Vaughn, any research conducted on human beings needs to adhere to the following three moral principles: autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence.
These principles are often referred to as the "principles of biomedical ethics" and are widely recognized as essential in guiding ethical research practices. Autonomy refers to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions and to give informed consent. Beneficence refers to the obligation to maximize benefits and minimize harm to research subjects.
Nonmaleficence refers to the obligation to not intentionally cause harm to research subjects. In addition to these three principles, some scholars also argue that justice should also be considered when conducting research on human beings. Justice refers to ensuring that the benefits and burdens of research are distributed fairly among all participants. By following these principles, researchers can ensure that their research is conducted in an ethical manner and that the rights and welfare of participants are protected.
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the risk of dying from morbid (extreme) obesity is equal to the risk of dying from smoking.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Mary approaches you and says that you could save time by not washing your hands so much she tells you that if you are wearing gloves you don’t have to wash your hands after you take them off how do you respond to Marie and what action should you take
Answer:
i would respond as
Explanation:
Washing your hands is the best way to stop germs from spreading. ... You can't wear rubber gloves all day long, but you can wash your hands so ... But did you know that a lot of people don't know how to get their paws perfectly clean? The next time you're told to step up to the sink and scrub up, remember these handy hints:. WASH YOURB HANDS
what is the most common means of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
a patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. no problems develop. what diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits?
The O09.893, Z3A.30 diagnostic code is reported for these three additional visits for Pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia usually begins after the 20th week of pregnancy in women with normal blood pressure. It can cause serious and even fatal complications for both mother and child. No symptoms occur. Hypertension and proteinuria are the main features. Also, the legs may be swollen or swollen, but this may be difficult to distinguish from a normal pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia can often be treated with oral or intravenous drugs until the baby is mature enough to deliver. This often involves weighing the risk of preterm birth against the risk of persistent preeclamptic symptoms.
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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
treating the symptoms but not actually
getting rid of the cause
Answer:
Example below
Explanation:
Treating type II diabetes with metformin or insulin treats the symptom of high blood glucose but doesn't treat the cause (usually obesity).
An ovarian tumor is charted in the medical record as: A. ovariorrhexis. B. ovariocyesis. C. oophoroma. D. ooplasm. Oophor/o means ovary; -oma means tumor.
An ovarian tumor is charted in the medical record as oophoroma. The correct answer is C.
In medical terminology, "oophoroma" describes a tumor of the ovary.
The combining form "oophor/o" refers to the ovary, and the suffix "-oma" signifies a tumor or neoplasm.
Therefore, "oophoroma" specifically denotes an ovarian tumor.
"Ovariorrhexis" suggests a rupture of the ovary rather than a tumor."Ovariocyesis" combines "ovari/o" (ovary) with "cyesis" (pregnancy), which is unrelated to an ovarian tumor."Ooplasm" refers to the cytoplasm of an ovum (egg cell), not an ovarian tumor.Thus, the correct option is C.
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The correct term for an ovarian tumor is oophoroma.
The correct charted term for an ovarian tumor is oophoroma. The term oophor/o means ovary and -oma means tumor. Therefore, oophoroma is the appropriate medical term to describe an ovarian tumor
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a patient with neurogenic shock has a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute. based on this observation, for what should the nurse prepare the patient?
Based on the observation of a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute in a patient with neurogenic shock, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of cardiac arrest.
Neurogenic shock is a type of shock that is caused by a problem with the autonomic nervous system, which can result in a slow and irregular heart rate. If the heart rate remains slow for an extended period of time, it can lead to cardiac arrest, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. To prepare for the possibility of cardiac arrest, the nurse should:
Administer oxygen: Oxygen can help maintain the patient's oxygen saturation and improve their chances of survival in the event of cardiac arrest.
Monitor the patient's vital signs: The nurse should continue to monitor the patient's vital signs, including their heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, and report any changes to the healthcare team.
Be prepared to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): If the patient's heart stops, the nurse should be prepared to administer CPR, which involves chest compressions and artificial ventilation to try to restore the patient's heartbeat.
Notify the healthcare team: The nurse should notify the healthcare team immediately if the patient experiences cardiac arrest or any other medical emergency.
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A sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
A sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute.
When a patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
An observation is a formal way of watching and listening to patients and their care, which is essential to assess the patient's condition. Patients in the neurogenic shock have a low cardiac output resulting in the patient experiencing hypotension. This type of shock results from damage to the nervous system, and it can occur due to spinal cord injury.
Hence, a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
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PLEASE GIVE examples of things that you are willing to sacrifice for the sake of your significant others happiness?
Answer:
time to your partner
money helping others (overdue the help)
energy helping others (overdue the help)
your health helping others (overdue the help)
Explanation:
hope it helps ;p
The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the
The deepest part of the nephron loop is determined as the?
a.Site of blood filtration.
b.Region of highest interstitial osmolarity (solute concentration)
c.Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid
d.Region that NaCl flows out but not water.
Answer:
collecting points po
need ko po Kasi
Wala na po akong points para magtanong
sorry ok talaga
hope you understand
The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid. (Option c)
The Nephron Loop, also known as the Loop of Henle, is a crucial part of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and processing blood to form urine. The deepest part of the Nephron Loop, called the "ascending limb," is involved in reabsorbing water and solutes from the tubular fluid back into the bloodstream.
In this region, water is reabsorbed passively along with sodium and chloride ions in response to the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. The ascending limb plays a significant role in creating a concentration gradient in the surrounding interstitial fluid, establishing the osmotic gradient necessary for the reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts later in the nephron.
Option (c) correctly describes the functions of the deepest part of the Nephron Loop, making it the most appropriate choice among the given options.
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How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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On average, worldwide each day ___ to ___ young people become addicted to tobacco.
Based on the information in the previous question, you would expect Dominic's antibody levels to
O increase
O decrease
Answer:
decrease
Explanation:
You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?
The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.
There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;
Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situationFor the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.
You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.
Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.
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Answer:
911
Explanation:
Discuss three effects of
stimul ant drugs on the
brain
Answer:
Some possible effects include increased alertness, excitation, euphoria (extreme happiness), increased pulse rate and blood pressure, insomnia (can't sleep), and loss of appetite.
Also, a common cause of death for stimulant users is a heart attack. Their heart gets beating so fast that it can't keep up with itself.
Calculate for a 10% allowable margin of error in powder weight 5g with 20g of cream base
The allowable margin of error in powder weight is 10% of 5g, is 0.5g.
How do we solve for the allowable margin of error?A 10% allowable margin of error for the powder weight of 5g means the weight of the powder could vary by 10% of 5g.
To calculate this:
10% of 5g = 0.10 × 5 = 0.5g
This means that the actual powder weight can be anywhere between 4.5g and 5.5g and still be considered accurate.
The total weight of the cream base is 20g, so the total weight of the mixture should be between 24.5g and 25.5g.
Minimum powder weight = 5g - 0.5g = 4.5g
Maximum powder weight = 5g + 0.5g = 5.5g
Minimum mixture weight = 4.5g + 20g = 24.5g
Maximum mixture weight = 5.5g + 20g = 25.5g
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The Important Message from Medicare should be delivered to which kind of
Medicare patients?
Answer:
Hospitals
Explanation:
Hospitals are required to deliver the Important Message from Medicare (IM), formerly CMS-R-193 and now CMS-10065, to all Medicare beneficiaries (Original Medicare beneficiaries and Medicare Advantage plan enrollees) who are hospital inpatients
ravi records his observations of a patient suffering from binge eating disorder. he does this for a period of 12 months, and now he has a thorough analysis of the behaviors and patterns associated with the patient's binge eating disorder. this is an example of a(n)
A patient with a binge eating disorder is the subject of observations made by Ravi. After doing this for a full year, Ravi has a solid understanding of the patterns and behaviors linked to the patient's binge eating disorder. This is an example of a case study.
What does "case study" mean?A case study is described as a thorough study of a person, a group of persons, or a unit with the goal of generalizing over several units. A case study has also been defined as an intense, systematic assessment of a single individual, group, community, or other entity in which the researcher examines detailed data on several variables.
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Dr. Jones has a permit to perform CLIA-waived tests in his medical office. What is meant by a CLIA-waived test?
It is a simple test with low risk of incorrect results :)
2. What role does the medical assistant play in breaking down
barriers to communication in a medical office?
what kind of exercise would you do to improve your cardiorespiratory endurance?
Answer:
Running, jogging, swimming, cycling (aerobics)
Explanation:
Activities like walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross country skiing and many types of dancing are “pure” aerobic activities. Sports such as soccer, basketball, squash and tennis may also improve your cardiovascular fitness.
A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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