How would a patient feel if a patient was getting a x-ray but her chart said she was getting a different x-ray

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

i think the patient will be

scared or

relief .


Related Questions

julie analyzes what she eats over a week, and finds out she is eating less than half of the recommended amount of iron. what characteristic of a healthy diet is she not meeting? g

Answers

Without a healthy diet, your body is more vulnerable to illness, infection, weariness, and poor performance. Lack of access to healthful meals can cause growth and developmental issues, poor academic performance, and recurrent illnesses in kids.

How should food calories be analysed?

The USDA's National Nutrient Database typically contains information on the caloric and nutritional value of various foods and substances. The Nutrition Information panel on most packaged items also includes information.

Your child's excellent health, development, and growth depend on their eating well. A healthy diet throughout infancy lowers the risk of chronic illnesses including heart disease, type 2 diabetes, obesity, and several malignancies. Also, they will feel better and have more fun in life.

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What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water

Answers

Answer:

b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers

Explanation:

dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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.What would the nurse do if he or she encountered resistance when inserting a nasogastric tube?
1. Ask the patient to cough.
2. Withdraw the tube to the nasopharynx.
3. Encourage the patient to swallow.
4. Instruct the patient to hyperextend the neck.

Answers

If a nurse encounters resistance when inserting a nasogastric tube the appropriate action to take would be encourage the patient to swallow. The correct answer is option 3.

This helps the tube to move past the resistance, allowing it to be inserted more easily. The other options, such as asking the patient to cough, withdrawing the tube to the nasopharynx, or instructing the patient to hyperextend the neck, are not the recommended steps to take in this situation. Encouraging the patient to swallow is the most effective method to overcome resistance and successfully insert the nasogastric tube.

However, it is important to proceed with caution and not force the tube, as this can cause harm to the patient.

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A veterinarian needs to possess strong

skills to retain, understand, and interpret a lot of information accurately.

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A veterinarian is someone who is trained to treat disease or injury in animals. They are popularly known as Veterinary Doctor.

To be able to find success in the profession, a veterinarian needs certain qualities which includes:

1. Great observation

2. Effective communication

3. High motor skills

4. Impressive intellectual: this comprises of possession of strong

skills to retain, understand and interpret a lot of information accurately.

5. Good socio-behavioral attributes

Therefore, it is TRUE that a veterinarian needs to possess strong skills to retain, understand and interpret a lot of information accurately.

XYZ medication 200 mg, 5 tabs bid x 6 days. How many tablets will be dispensed from the
pharmacy?

Answers

The number of tablets that will be dispensed by the pharmacy is; 60 tablets

This is further explained below.

What is the pharmacy?

Generally, As a profession, pharmacy has evolved to include not only the compounding and dispensing of pharmaceuticals, but also clinical services, drug safety, and efficacy reviews, and drug information dissemination.

In conclusion, It is recommended to take 5 pills twice a day, which is denoted by the abbreviation BID. Therefore, if one pill is used each day for six days, then the pharmacy will need to distribute a total of 60 tablets for the patient's use.

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A small child with a laceration to the head would require surgical stitching at the edges of the wound or:

Answers

A small child with a laceration to the head would require surgical stitching at the edges of the wound or suturing. A laceration is a type of injury where the skin is cut open, often requiring surgical intervention due to its depth.

Additionally, a deep laceration may involve blood vessel damage, leading to significant bleeding. It is crucial to seek immediate medical attention for lacerations. Sutures, also known as stitches, are commonly used to repair lacerations. If the wound is extensive or there is high skin tension around the wound, staples or adhesive tapes may be utilized instead. In some cases, medical glue can be employed to seal the wound edges.

The choice of closure technique depends on various factors such as the location and size of the wound. Suturing is a safe and effective method frequently employed for closing lacerations in both children and adults. It allows for precise alignment and approximation of the wound edges, promoting proper healing and reducing the risk of infection.

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A client returns to the telemetry unit after an operative procedure. Which diagnostic test will the nurse perform to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy ordered for the client?.

Answers

The nurse will perform pulse oximetry to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy ordered for the client.

What is pulse oximetry?

The oxygen saturation level of your blood can be measured with a non-invasive procedure called pulse oximetry.

It can quickly identify even minute variations in oxygen levels. These levels demonstrate how well blood transports oxygen to your arms and legs, which are the extremities that are farthest from your heart. It looks like a little clip and is called a pulse oximeter. It fastens to a body component, usually a finger.

Pulse oximetry is helpful for postoperative patients, monitoring individuals at risk for hypoxia, titrating oxygen therapy, and monitoring patients receiving oxygen therapy.

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You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths

Answers

well first you need to do compressions, 100-120 if it's a child i think under 8 yrs old, and then you can provide 2 breaths and more if needed i think at most around 5

Answer: it is right

Explanation: try it

A prescription is presented to you as follows: Diabinese 250mg qid for an 85 year old person weighing 120 pounds. Would you fill the prescrition written?

Answers

I would say yes I’ll fill the prescription

What are the side effect for induction therapy

Answers

Answer:

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and headache may occur. In some cases, your doctor may prescribe medication to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. Eating several small meals, not eating before treatment, or limiting activity may help lessen some of these effects.

Explanation:

Hair loss.
Infections, from low levels of white blood cells.
Easy bruising or bleeding, from low levels of platelets in your blood.
Tiredness, from having low levels of red blood cells.
Mouth sores.
Loss of appetite.
Nausea and vomiting.
Skin and nail changes.

which substances play an important role in communication between cells in a multicellular organism by acting as a chemical messenger?

Answers

Answer:

Hormones are chemical messengers that relay messages to cells that display specific receptors for each hormone and respond to the signal.

In this model of the rock cycle, A represents

rock and arrow B represents the process of

.

Answers

In this model of the rock cycle, A represents metamorphic rock and arrow B represents the process of weathering.

What is a rock cycle?

A rock cycle simply refers to a concept that is used to describe and illustrate the continuous chemical and biological processes that leads to the formation (creation) of a rock, its transformation from one kind to another, its destruction and reformation over a specific period of time.

In Science, some examples of the natural phenomenon that influences rock cycle are;

Plate tectonic activityErosionWeathering

Weathering involves both the physical and chemical breakdown of rock into smaller pieces while metamorphic rock is a type of rock which is formed due to the transformation of an existing rock.

Based on the model in the image attached below, we can infer and logically conclude that item A represents a metamorphic rock while arrow B represents the process of weathering.

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In this model of the rock cycle, A represents rock and arrow B represents the process of .

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?

a) introns

b) repressors

c) operons

Answers

The correct answer is (a) introns, which is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes.Explanation:Prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes are significantly different in structure, organization, and regulation. The nucleoid region, a plasmid, and an operon are the three main components of prokaryotic genes.

In contrast, eukaryotic genes have a distinct nucleus containing DNA molecules as chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes have introns and exons, as well as promoters and enhancers to control gene expression.Operons are a group of genes that operate together and are regulated by a single promoter in prokaryotic cells.

In contrast, eukaryotic genes, which have complex chromatin arrangements, are regulated by transcription factors and enhancers that work together to control gene expression.Introns, on the other hand, are segments of DNA that are not expressed in protein synthesis and are unique to eukaryotic genes.

They must be removed via RNA splicing in order for the gene to be expressed. As a result, introns are found in eukaryotic genes but not in prokaryotic genes. Therefore, the correct option is (a) introns.

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The nutrition facts panel on a box of granola indicates that one serving contains 1 gram of saturated fat and 2 grams of unsaturated fat. The label on this product is allowed to state that it is
A) Fat free
B) Low fat
C) Saturated Fat free
D) Reduced Calorie

Answers

The label on this product is allowed to state that it is option B) Low fat

The nutrition facts panel on a box of granola indicates that one serving contains 1 gram of saturated fat and 2 grams of unsaturated fat. A product can be labeled as "low fat" if it contains 3 grams or less of total fat per serving. Since this granola contains 1 + 2 = 3 grams of total fat per serving, it can be labeled as "low fat." It can't be labeled as "fat free" or "saturated fat free" because it does contain some fat and saturated fat. And it can't be labeled as "reduced calorie" because it doesn't contain any information about calories on this serving size.

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se encontró un charco de sangre en la escena del crimen. ¿Qué
tipo de evidencia se consideraria esto?
biological / biologico
physical fisico
trace / rastro
direct / directo

Answers

physical / físico
- enseña que han cometido un crimen por el tipo de evidencia
- evidencia físico también puede ser pelo, sangre, huellas, etc.

The tendency of a person to catastrophize the extent of loss lowers his blood pressure.

Answers

Answer: What is the question

Explanation:

QUESTION 16
Stanley Milgram's famous research (The fake electric shock experiment) investigated:
Obedience to an authority figure
O Bystander apathy
O The effects of watching violence on TV
O Prejudice

Answers

Watching tv violence might be the answer

In which part of the world is undernourishment most concentrated?

Answers

Answer:

I think it's Africa because on quizlet when that was asked it seemed that Africa was the right answer to that question but I'm unsure and if not then I don't know.

which parental statement would the nurse recognize as a sign that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The parental statements that may be signs that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy are my baby doesn't make eye contact, my baby was able to turn from front to back by 2 months of age, and all of my other children were sitting alone by this age, this baby doesn't seem to be anywhere near sitting alone, the correct options are 1, 2, and 5.

The statement indicates a lack of social interaction, which can be a red flag for developmental delays, including cerebral palsy. It indicates early achievement of a milestone that may suggest hypertonia, a symptom of cerebral palsy.

It indicates a delay in the achievement of a milestone, which is also a red flag for developmental delays. Early identification and intervention are crucial for improving outcomes for infants with cerebral palsy, the correct options are 1, 2, and 5.

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The complete question is:

Which parental statements would the nurse recognize as signs that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy (select all that apply)

1. My baby doesn't make eye contact

2. My baby seems to have a voracious appetite

3. My baby was able to turn from front to back by 2 months of age

4. I've noticed that this baby clings to me more than other children of the same age

5. All of my other children were sitting alone by this age. This baby doesn't seem to be anywhere near sitting alone

what type of disorder is most likely to be sugested in one who has a long history of cruel,illegal behavior

Answers

Answer:

A long history of cruel and illegal behavior may suggest a conduct disorder. Conduct disorder is a childhood or adolescent behavioral and emotional disorder characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated. Symptoms may include aggression toward people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules. The diagnosis of conduct disorder typically requires the presence of symptoms for at least 12 months. It is often a precursor to antisocial personality disorder in adulthood.

Explanation:

Tar in cigarettes disrupts a process in the upper respiratory tract called the.

Answers

Tar in cigarettes disrupts a process in the upper respiratory tract called the emphysema.

What is cigarette?

This is a long pipe that contains tobacco, nicotine and other substances which are commonly taken in by people and is known to cause a number of respiratory problems to chronic smokers.

Tar in cigarettes disrupts a process in the upper respiratory tract called the emphysema.

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Explain how a patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where
in the brain an injury occurred.

Answers

Answer:

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function:

Loss of or decreased consciousnessLoss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia)Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speechAlteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentratingSymptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.

Explanation: hope this helped you out !

The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).

What is Traumatic Brain Injury?

The disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue.

Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function is the loss of or decreased consciousness loss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia). Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speech alteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentrating.

Symptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.

Therefore, The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).

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Mr. Flores is undergoing a cardiac cath. Then answer the following questions
The cardiac catheterization lab nurse assigned to care for Mr. Flores will provide teaching, check to see that there are no contraindications for Mr. Flores consenting to the procedure, and provide pre- and post procedure care.
1. What are the potential contraindications that can prevent someone from being able to have a cardiac catheterization? Does Mr. Flores have any of them?
2. What are two appropriate nursing diagnoses to consider for Mr. Flores prior to him having the cardiac catheterization?
3. List at least five manifestations of an adverse reaction to the contrast dye the nurse will watch for.
4. What is "informed consent"? Is consent required prior to a cardiac catheterization? Why or why not?
5. What are the risks of having a cardiac catheterization? What are the two most common complications during the procedure?
6. Immediately following the cardiac catheterization procedure, what is the nurse’s responsibility to help minimize bleeding at the femoral puncture site?

Answers

1. Potential contraindications for cardiac catheterization can include severe allergic reactions to contrast dye, uncontrolled bleeding disorders, severe kidney disease or failure, uncontrolled high blood pressure, active infection, and certain heart conditions.

Without specific information about Mr. Flores's medical history, it is difficult to determine if he has any contraindications. However, the nurse will assess his medical records, conduct a thorough physical examination, and review his laboratory results to identify any potential contraindications before proceeding with the procedure.

2. Two appropriate nursing diagnoses to consider for Mr. Flores prior to the cardiac catheterization may include:

- Anxiety related to the procedure and potential outcomes.

- Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to the invasive nature of the procedure and potential bleeding at the puncture site.

3. Manifestations of an adverse reaction to contrast dye that the nurse will watch for include:

- Allergic reactions such as rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing.

- Nausea and vomiting.

- Flushing or feeling warm.

- Headache or dizziness.

- Changes in heart rate or blood pressure.

4. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a medical procedure to the patient, ensuring they understand the information and can make an autonomous decision. Consent is required prior to a cardiac catheterization because it is an invasive procedure with potential risks. By obtaining informed consent, healthcare providers respect the patient's autonomy and ensure they are fully aware of the procedure, its purpose, and associated risks before giving permission to proceed.

5. Risks of cardiac catheterization include bleeding or hematoma at the puncture site, infection, allergic reactions to contrast dye, damage to blood vessels or the heart, blood clots, stroke, and kidney damage. The two most common complications during the procedure are bleeding at the puncture site and irregular heart rhythms (arrhythmias).

6. Immediately following the cardiac catheterization procedure, the nurse's responsibility to help minimize bleeding at the femoral puncture site includes applying pressure to the site to facilitate hemostasis, ensuring the patient remains on bed rest with the affected leg straight, monitoring vital signs and puncture site for signs of bleeding or hematoma formation, assessing distal pulses and sensation in the affected leg, and providing appropriate pain management as needed.

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Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase

Explanation:

If the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber, there would be increase in the blood volume comes to the outflow tube per unit time. The filtration rate across the membrane would increase because the pressure in the chamber would be greater

The osmotic concentration of proteins would not be expected to increase in the dialysate fluid because proteins generally do not pass through the membrane

The physician has ordered Ceclor (cefaclor) 250 mg. On hand you have liquid that contains 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL will you give?

Answers

Answer:

5 mL=250 mL

Explanation: Is equal to250 mL

g what constitutes a healthy or normal bmi? what are some of the reasons it is useful to have a single number, such as a bmi, to describe a height/weight relationship? what are the drawbacks?

Answers

Answer:

BMI is the shortened form for Body Mass Index.

The Body Mass Index is a simple arithmetic for determining one's body fat using their height and weight.    

The formula is given as

 

\(\frac{Weight (Kilograms)}{Height (Metres)}\) or

\((\frac{Weight (Pounds)}{Height (Inches}) * 703\)

If an adults BMI falls within the 18.5 to 24.9 range, it is considered healthy.

One of the benefits of using BMI as a health metric is that it is so easy to compute.

Its major disadvantage is that it only accounts for height and weight which can be altered by a variety of circumstances and as such in most cases are not the best indicators of whether or not, one if healthy.

For example, a higher muscle mass will mean more weight and as such, a higher BMI. Generally speaking, more muscle and less fat is healthy. So BMI, in this case, is useless as a metric of health status.

Other factors which alter the reading of BMI are: Gender, Frame Size, Age,

Pregnancy etc.

An individual who is very muscular, pregnant, or have a large frame, will most likely have a higher BMI calculation which may indicate that one is obese or overweight when they're not.

Cheers!

Which employees should be aware of how to turn off power to a shop in an emergency?

Answers

Answer:  probably all of them

Explanation:

During a shift, the patient consumed 180 ml of water, 200 ml of tea, 8 oz of milk, and one 6 oz glass of ice chips. calculate the total intake for the shift (in mL).
Enter the number only (not the unit) in your answer

Answers

During a shift, the patient consumed 180 ml of water, 200 ml of tea, 8 oz of milk, and one 6 oz glass of ice chips. The total intake for the shift was 558 mL.

The total intake of a particular kind of food, drink, or air is the amount that you eat, drink, or breathe in total.

A patient is referred as any recipient of health care services that are performed by basically healthcare professionals. The patient is the person who is most often ill or injured and in need of treatment by a physician, nurse, optometrist, dentist, veterinarian, or other health care provider.

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